RRB Sr. Clerk cum Typist Mock Test 2025

RRB Sr. Clerk cum Typist Mock Test 2025 

Prepare for the upcoming Railway Recruitment Board (RRB) examination for the post of Sr. Clerk cum Typist (Pay Level-5).Here is the exam paper arranged in a clean Multiple Choice Question (MCQ) format. I have corrected obvious formatting errors from the source text (such as merged options or missing option labels) to ensure clarity.This comprehensive mock test includes 110 Multiple Choice Questions covering essential topics such as:

  • Railway Service Rules (D&A, Conduct, Leave Rules)
  • General Awareness & Indian Constitution
  • Railway History & Infrastructure
  • Allowances, Pensions, and Financial Rules

**Q1. LAP (Leave on Average Pay) is credited at the rate of ___ days per month.**

a) 2.5

b) 3

c) 3.5

d) 2


**Q2. Child care leave for female employees is given up to a maximum of ___ days.**

a) 660

b) 560

c) 700

d) 730


**Q3. For miscarriage, including abortion, what period of Maternity Leave may be granted?**

a) 6 weeks

b) 45 days

c) 7 weeks

d) 43 days (Note: Option d in source says "43 days/5 weeks", likely a typo for 6 weeks/42 days or similar, but kept as per source context)


**Q4. Apprentice Mechanics in Railways Workshops may be granted leave on full stipend for a period not exceeding:**

a) 16 days

b) 20 days

c) 25 days

d) 30 days


**Q5. Who was the first GM of RCF (Railway Coach Factory)?**

a) G.S. KANG

b) S.N. MAHANT

c) I.D. AMIN

d) None


**Q6. In railways, MCDO stands for:**

a) Monthly Confidential Demi-Official

b) More Confidential Demi-Official

c) Monetare Confidential Demi-Official

d) Monthly Confidential Official letter


**Q7. What is the maximum wage taken into account for drawal of PLB (Productivity Linked Bonus)?**

a) Rs. 1600/- p.m.

b) Rs. 2000/- p.m.

c) Rs. 7000/- p.m.

d) Rs. 2800/- p.m.


**Q8. Name of the allowance drawn in favour of Railway Doctors to compensate for not practicing privately:**

a) Doctor Allowance

b) Special Medical Allowance

c) Non-practicing Allowance

d) Extra Facility Allowance


**Q9. Non-gazetted railway servants who do not enjoy public holidays are granted:**

a) Special Holiday Allowance

b) Compensatory Holiday Allowance

c) National Holiday Allowance

d) No allowance is given


**Q10. What is the name of the allowance drawn in favour of a railway employee on transfer to meet the expenses for shifting of luggage and family members?**

a) Transfer and Packing Allowance

b) Transfer Advance

c) Composite Transfer Grant (CTG)

d) Transportation charges


**Q11. To be eligible for drawal of Travelling Allowance, what is the minimum distance a railway employee has to travel beyond his place of work?**

a) 12 kms

b) 10 kms

c) 8 kms

d) 9 kms


**Q12. What is the rate of Transport Allowance for handicapped railway employees?**

a) 10% of pay

b) Double the normal rate of Transport allowance

c) No changes

d) Rs. 1000/- to all


**Q13. Which scheme is intended to provide substantial motivation towards achievement of higher productivity?**

a) Awards

b) PLB (Productivity Linked Bonus)

c) Honorarium

d) Special benefits


**Q14. Which of the following Rules of D&A Rules 1968 specifies the Penalties?**

a) Rule 9

b) Rule 11

c) Rule 6

d) Rule 5


**Q15. Which standard form is required to be used for issuing the order of Deemed Suspension?**

a) S.F-1

b) S.F-3

c) S.F-2

d) S.F-5


**Q16. A retired railway servant is allowed to act as defense counsel in D&A proceedings for how many cases?**

a) 3 cases

b) 5 cases

c) 7 cases

d) None


**Q17. What is the time limit for submission of appeal under D&A Rules 1968?**

a) 45 days

b) 35 days

c) 25 days

d) 55 days


**Q18. How many Annexures are there in a major penalty charge memorandum?**

a) 2

b) 3

c) 4

d) 5


**Q19. What is S.F-7 issued for?**

a) To issue major charge sheet

b) For placing an employee under suspension

c) For revocation of suspension

d) For Appointment of inquiry officer


**Q20. What is the relevant rule in RS(D&A) Rules 1968 for common proceedings?**

a) Rule 9

b) Rule 11

c) Rule 13

d) Rule 14


**Q21. The Railway Servants D&A Rules 1968 came into force w.e.f.:**

a) 01.10.1968

b) 01.01.1968

c) 01.11.1968

d) 01.04.1968


**Q22. Who is the competent authority to decide the classification of posts as 'Non-selection' in each Department?**

a) GM (General Manager)

b) HOD (Head of Department)

c) Railway Board

d) DRM (Divisional Railway Manager)


**Q23. In case of suitability test, the vacancies are to be calculated on the basis of:**

a) Existing vacancy

b) Anticipated vacancy

c) Resultant vacancy

d) All of the above


**Q24. What period of service in the lower grade is required for promotion in Gr. ‘C’ post (Non-safety Category)?**

a) 1 year

b) 2 years

c) 3 years

d) 4 years


**Q25. Non-selection posts are filled by promotion of staff on the basis of:**

a) Seniority

b) Suitability

c) Seniority-cum-Suitability

d) None of these


**Q26. How many members will be there in a Selection Board for forming a panel in selection posts?**

a) 5

b) 3

c) 4

d) 1


**Q27. A panel once approved may be cancelled after obtaining the approval of:**

a) Selection Board

b) Authority who approved the panel

c) Authority next higher than one who approved the panel

d) GM


**Q28. What percentage of marks are to be obtained in the selection for being declared “outstanding”?**

a) 50%

b) 60%

c) 80%

d) 70%


**Q29. What is the rate of interest on advance for purchase of House Building Advance?**

a) 7.44%

b) 7.9%

c) 8%

d) 9%


**Q30. Direct recruitment quota for Junior Clerk is:**

a) 40%

b) 50%

c) 60%

d) 30%


**Q31. LDCE (Limited Departmental Competitive Examination) quota for Senior Clerk is:**

a) 13.33%

b) 33.33%

c) 60%

d) 30%


**Q32. At what rate is a Jr. Scale officer entitled to Newspaper Allowance every month?**

a) 500

b) 800

c) 1000

d) 1200


**Q33. Relaxation of lower age limits up to 1 yr. (i.e., 17 yrs.) for appointment on compassionate grounds can be considered by the authority:**

a) GM

b) CPO (Chief Personnel Officer)

c) Railway Board

d) DRM


**Q34. Which one of the following would NOT come within the categories of persons eligible for compassionate appointment?**

a) Brother-in-law

b) Daughter

c) Son

d) Wife


**Q35. How many days of LHAP (Leave on Half Average Pay) can be accumulated by an employee in his service life?**

a) 300 days

b) 450 days

c) 600 days

d) Unlimited


**Q36. What is the maximum period of leave on average pay at a time that a Railway Servant may be granted?**

a) 180 days

b) 200 days

c) 600 days

d) [Option missing in source, typically 600 is max accumulation, but single spell is usually 180]


**Q37. Which standard form is issued to nominate the Presenting Officer?**

a) S.F-1

b) S.F-3

c) S.F-8

d) S.F-5


**Q38. The current rate of interest on General Provident Fund (GPF) is:**

a) 7.1%

b) 8%

c) 7.6%

d) 9%


**Q39. National Pension System (NPS) was implemented from:**

a) 01.01.2004

b) 01.05.2005

c) 01.04.2004

d) 01.10.2004


**Q40. The Unified Pension Scheme (UPS) for Central Government employees was officially implemented from:**

a) 01.01.2004

b) 01.05.2005

c) 01.04.2025

d) 01.10.2004


**Q41. Group 'B' direct recruitment is made in Indian Railways through which recruiting agency?**

a) UPSC

b) SSC

c) RRB

d) No direct recruitment in Group 'B' in railways


**Q42. 'Creamy Layer' principle is applicable in the reservation of which social group?**

a) Scheduled Caste

b) Scheduled Tribe

c) Other Backward Caste (OBC)

d) None of these


**Q43. ‘IRIMEE’ is a centralized training institute for which major stream of Indian Railways?**

a) Civil Engineering

b) Signal Engineering

c) Electronics Engineering

d) Mechanical Engineering


**Q44. What is the applicable percentage of reservation for persons with benchmark disability for non-gazetted staff?**

a) 3%

b) 4%

c) 5%

d) 6%


**Q45. Where is CORE located?**

a) Allahabad

b) Ahmedabad

c) Lucknow

d) Patiala


**Q46. NHA stands for:**

a) National Healthcare Association

b) National House Allowance

c) National Holiday Allowance

d) National Health Authority


**Q47. The pension which is obtained on retirement within a fixed age limit is called:**

a) Supraannuation

b) Upperannuation

c) Superannuation

d) None of these


**Q48. Full form of HRMS:**

a) Human Resource Management System

b) Human Reservation Managerial System

c) Human Resource Maintenance Services

d) Human Resource Management Services


**Q49. What is the expansion of IPAS?**

a) Indian Probationary Association

b) Indian Public Accounts Service

c) Intelligence Police Audit Service

d) Integrated Pay Roll Accounting System


**Q50. Full form of GeM:**

a) Government Easy Marketplace

b) Government Electronic Machine

c) Government Electronic Marketplace

d) Government Electronic Maintenance


**Q51. Where is RDSO situated?**

a) Mumbai

b) Bengaluru

c) Chennai

d) Lucknow


**Q52. What is the validity of a half set privilege pass?**

a) 3 months

b) 4 months

c) 5 months

d) 12 months


**Q53. The Head Quarter of Southern Railway is:**

a) Bengaluru

b) Chennai

c) New Delhi

d) Secunderabad


**Q54. Paternity Leave may be availed by:**

a) All Railway employees

b) Male Railway Employees

c) Retired Railway Employees

d) Female employees


**Q55. Minimum Pension in Indian Railways is:**

a) Rs. 9000/-

b) Rs. 3500/-

c) Rs. 5000/-

d) Rs. 18000/-


**Q56. What is the age relaxation for direct Recruitment for SC/ST Candidates?**

a) 3 years

b) 5 years

c) 2 years

d) 4 years


**Q57. Quota of reservation for direct recruitment of ex-servicemen in Group 'C' is:**

a) 10%

b) 20%

c) 30%

d) 40%


**Q58. When an employee refuses promotion, he/she is debarred for how many years?**

a) 01 year

b) 02 years

c) 03 years

d) 04 years


**Q59. Recommendations of 7th CPC, as accepted by Govt. of India committee, effected from:**

a) 01.01.2006

b) 01.01.2016

c) 01.04.2006

d) 01.04.2016


**Q60. From which year was UMID implemented in Indian Railways?**

a) 2017

b) 2018

c) 2019

d) 2020


**Q61. Full form of NAIR is:**

a) National Academy of Information & Research

b) National Advisory for Internal Recruitment

c) National Association of Indian Railways

d) National Academy of Indian Railway


**Q62. In which class is a IIInd A Class pass holder entitled to travel?**

a) Sleeper

b) First class

c) AC 2 Tier

d) AC 3 Tier


**Q63. How many years of service are necessary to issue 3 sets of passes to a serving Non-Gazetted employee in a Calendar Year?**

a) 1

b) 3

c) 5

d) 4


**Q64. On which ground will a special pass be issued to a Railway employee?**

a) Cultural

b) Sport

c) Medical

d) All of them


**Q65. How many days of school vacation are required for issuing a school pass?**

a) 2 days or more

b) 3 days or more

c) 5 days or more

d) None


**Q66. Within what period must conversion of one kind of leave into another be considered?**

a) 7 days

b) 15 days

c) 30 days

d) 90 days


**Q67. How much amount is payable for a ticket to encash a P.T.O (Pass Travel Order)?**

a) Half

b) Two Third

c) One Third

d) One Fourth


**Q68. The prohibition of taking part in politics and elections by a railway employee is given under which Rule of Railway Service (Conduct) Rules 1966?**

a) Rule 4

b) Rule 5

c) Rule 6

d) Rule 7


**Q69. Under which rule of Railway Service (Conduct) Rules 1966, permission is required from Government for transaction of property in a foreign country?**

a) Rule 17

b) Rule 18

c) Rule 18 (A)

d) Rule 19


**Q70. Under which rule of the Railway Service (Conduct) Rules 1966, consumption of intoxicated drinks is prohibited?**

a) Rule 21

b) Rule 22

c) Rule 23

d) Rule 24


**Q71. What is the full form of IREM?**

a) Indian Railways Establishment Manual

b) Indian Rail Establishment Manager

c) Indian Railway Manual

d) Indian Railway


**Q72. UMID card is generated for:**

a) Employee

b) Pensioner

c) Dependent Family members

d) All of the above


**Q73. When was the Railway Board formed?**

a) 1905

b) 1900

c) 1920

d) 1915


**Q74. What is the full form of UPI?**

a) Uniform Payment Interface

b) Unified Payment Interphase

c) Unified Payments Interface

d) Utility Payment Interface


**Q75. The APAR of non-Gazetted staff should be written:**

a) Annually

b) Monthly

c) Once in 2 years

d) None of these


**Q76. PIN Code of RCF is:**

a) 144600

b) 144601

c) 144602

d) NONE


**Q77. Non-Practicing Allowance is granted to:**

a) Doctors

b) Drivers

c) Nurses

d) None of these


**Q78. No. of LHAP credited on 1st Jan every year:**

a) 15

b) 10

c) 20

d) 30


**Q79. Within how many months from the birth of a child can Paternity Leave be availed?**

a) 6

b) 3

c) 5

d) None of these


**Q80. Maximum Percentage (%) of commutation of pension on superannuation:**

a) 40%

b) 30%

c) 20%

d) None of these


**Q81. Rate of annual increment:**

a) 1%

b) 2%

c) 3%

d) 4%


**Q82. IRPS stands for:**

a) Indian Railway Police Service

b) Indian Railway Personnel Service

c) Indian Railway Postal Services

d) None Of the Above


**Q83. What is the expansion of MOSR?**

a) Member of State Railways

b) Minister of Society for Railways

c) Member of Secret Rules

d) Minister of State for Railways


**Q84. RCT stands for:**

a) Railway Commercial Tribunal

b) Railway Catering Tribunal

c) Railway Claims Tribunal

d) None Of the Above


**Q85. During suspension, what percentage of basic pay and D.A. is given?**

a) 20%

b) 50%

c) 40%

d) 70%


**Q86. Who is the Chairman of staff benefit fund at HQ?**

a) PCME

b) PCPO

c) Welfare Officer

d) SPO


**Q87. Name the Capital of Punjab:**

a) Delhi

b) Shimla

c) Chandigarh

d) None


**Q88. Which is NOT a necessary prerequisite for recruitment in Indian Railways?**

a) Minimum age

b) Minimum Qualification

c) Medical Standard

d) Religion


**Q89. A railway servant on extraordinary leave is entitled to what amount of leave salary?**

a) Full Pay

b) Half Pay

c) No Pay

d) None of these


**Q90. What kind of leave can be combined with Casual Leave?**

a) LAP

b) Study Leave

c) Maternity Leave

d) Special Casual Leave


**Q91. New Pension Scheme is:**

a) Contributory

b) Non-Contributory

c) None

d) All of the above


**Q92. What is the maximum joining time admissible to a Railway servant?**

a) 15 days

b) 12 days

c) 10 days

d) 16 days


**Q93. Benchmark for MACP based on APAR/Working Report:**

a) 2 years

b) 3 years

c) 4 years

d) 5 years


**Q94. GIS stands for:**

a) Group Insurance Scheme

b) Group Insurance System

c) Group Insure Scheme

d) None of these


**Q95. Joining Time shall be granted to a Railway servant on which type of transfer?**

a) Own request

b) Mutual

c) Administrative

d) All of them


**Q96. First railway ran between which stations in India?**

a) Mumbai - Delhi

b) Delhi — Thane

c) Mumbai - Pune

d) Mumbai – Thane


**Q97. Railway code of New Delhi Railway station is:**

a) DLS

b) NDL

c) NDLS

d) DLN


**Q98. Minimum qualification prescribed by Indian Railway for Level-I recruitment is:**

a) 10th Pass

b) 10+2

c) 8th Pass

d) Bachelor Degree


**Q99. Full form of ZRTI:**

a) Zonal Recruitment Training Institute

b) Zonal Railway Training Institute

c) Zonal Railway Technical Information

d) Zonal Railway Technical Institute


**Q100. What % of seats are reserved for EWS category in recruitment?**

a) 10%

b) 20%

c) 30%

d) 40%


**Q101. Which article of the Constitution of India mentions about the language of communication between one state and another or between a state and the Union?**

a) Article - 346

b) Article - 347

c) Article - 348

d) Article - 349


**Q102. How many members of Lok Sabha are there in the Parliamentary Committee on Official Language?**

a) 18

b) 20

c) 22

d) 10


**Q103. How many members are there in the Parliamentary Committee on Official Language (Total)?**

a) 30

b) 20

c) 10

d) 15


**Q104. How many sections are there in the Official Language Act, 1963?**

a) 8

b) 9

c) 10

d) [Option missing]


**Q105. In which year was the Official Language Rule passed?**

a) 1963

b) 1970

c) 1967

d) 1976


**Q106. When was Official Language Act 1963 passed?**

a) 11.05.1963

b) 10.05.1963

c) 12.05.1965

d) NONE


**Q107. Into how many Regions have Indian states been classified, according to Official Languages Rules?**

a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4


**Q108. What are all the 3 Regions as classified under Official Languages Rules?**

a) A, B & C

b) A, B & D

c) B, D & C

d) None


**Q109. According to Official Languages Rules, Tamil Nadu falls under which region?**

a) C

b) A

c) B

d) None


**Q110. Which is the Official Language of Arunachal Pradesh?**

a) KONKANI

b) MARATHI

c) ENGLISH

d) HINDI

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